Here is the full 2005 JMET (Joint Management Entrance Test) sample paper with solutions for JMET 2011 exam.
End Test Now
Next two Questions relate to the paragraphs given below: At the peak of the Battle of Britain, Winston Churchill said in the Commons on August 20, 1940, that “never in the field of human conflict was so much owed by so many to so fewâ€. Little did he then know how a majority of Indians would echo his sentiments, fifty years on, about 1.2 million of their compatriots. The latter have catapulted India into the international hi–tech orbit, lifting the contribution of the services sector in gross domestic product (GDP) to 52% – leaving industry and agriculture jostling for space in the rear.
The latest is that software and Information Technology (IT) services are expected to account for 7.7% of GDP by 2008, with software exports of around $87 billion. That, in turn, should generate a demand for IT hardware of $50 billion. The software industry employs more than 800,000 professionals with around 260,000 in software exports, 28,000 in the domestic software market, 280,000 in captive software user organizations,and 245,000 in the ITES–BPO sector. In fact, it has been planned to reach a teledensity of 9 per hundred by 2007 for New Delhi, to attain which 90 million direct exchange lines would be needed! That compares with just 20 million lines in 2000. Even India’s cellular phone market is growing and investments exceeding Rs. 25,000 crore are expected in the next three years, with a subscriber base of 120 million by 2008.
The underlined sentence in the first paragraph implies that:
A. a large nation was indebted to a small army
B. the small hi–tech sector in India has helped us go global
C. quality mass education must be sacrificed at the altar of hi–tech education
D. the majority should be indebted to the minority
According to the author,
A. 1.2 million Indians are significantly influencing the economy of India
B. Industry and agriculture have contributed to 48% of our GDP
C. New Delhi will need Rs. 25,000 crore to invest in 90 million direct exchange lines
D. 800,000 software professionals are expected to account for 7.7% of GDP by 2008
Directions: From Next four Questions, select the pair of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the pair in capitals:
FLIMSY : STURDY
A. prognosis : diagnosis
B. gauche : eloquent
C. flippant : earnest
D. drizzle : downpour
GREGARIOUS : OUTGOING
A. groggy : lucid
B. grouchy : irritable
C. aggressive : extrovert
D. gritty : sociable
SCHOOL : FISH
A. group : deer
B. badge : honor
C. leaf : book
D. mischief : monkeys
GUEST : INVITATION
A. visitor : letter
B. applicant : application
C. petitioner : plea
D. witness : subpoena
Directions: Read the following passage to answer Next four Questions. Choose the correct option in each of the questions
We define the entrepreneur as an individual who identifies opportunities, and on the basis of his/her ability, desire and confidence, makes judgments and decisions pertaining to the coordination of resources in order to exploit those opportunities for personal gain. Personal gain in the context could be financial, fame, prestige or satisfaction from helping other people. This definition extends the concept beyond the narrow limits of profit maximization. It is important to note that entrepreneurial decision making is distinct from routine managerial/administrative decision making by corporate executives. However, this definition does include innovative venture decisions by executives and others in an already existing organization as legitimate entrepreneurial function. The entrepreneurial function consists of three main elements: recognition of opportunities, judgemental decision and coordination of resources. In terms of organization, the entrepreneur will be involved in risk bearing, autonomous decision making and residual claims.
Every person is potentially an entrepreneur. However, the extent of its manifestation in actual entrepreneurial activities, business or otherwise, is a matter of political, social, economic, cultural and ideological influences. Put differently, every human being has an innate ability to become an entrepreneur even though this ability is not always translated into action because of a variety of limiting factors. This observation allows us to propose that there are more than 5 billion entrepreneurs in this world, even though this conjecture may not have been fully manifested in the practical world of business.
If there are more than 5 billion entrepreneurs in this world, how is it that there is such a dearth of entrepreneurs in the world of business? This is an important question in view of the fact that business communities, academia and policy makers in the public realm have begun to talk about possibilities for fostering entrepreneurial growth in the global economy.
As per the passage, an entrepreneur is one who:
A. takes commercial venture decisions.
B. exploits opportunities for personal gain.
C. invites participation in decision–making.
D. focuses on maximizing cash profits.
The passage mentions the following functions of an entrepreneur:
A. Risk–taking, decision–making, encouraging creativity.
B. Coordinating resources, recognizing opportunities and leading from the front.
C. Independent decision–making, exploiting opportunities and maximizing profits.
D. Making judgements, innovating and claiming responsibility
The passage implies that it is important to understand:
A. why there are so few entrepreneurs in business.
B. the main functions of an entrepreneur.
C. the factors which inhibit entrepreneurship.
D. the meaning of personal gain for an entrepreneur.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct, according to the passage?
A. There are more than 4 billion potential entrepreneurs in this world
B. Not everybody can become an entrepreneur
C. Entrepreneurial decision–making is different from managerial decision–making.
D. Executives in organizations can be either managers or entrepreneurs, but not both.
Next six Questions are based on the passage given below:
The guy sitting grimly alone in the corner of the office may not be anti–social. He may, in fact, even be working. That could be one of the inferences drawn from a recent survey conducted by America Online and Salary.com. Socializing with co–workers, spacing out and surfing the Web could, says the survey, cost US companies as much as $759 billion in salary. The survey of 10,044 employees debunks some popular myths. Men and women were found to have wasted an equal amount of time at work. Older workers were significantly more attentive. As compared to the overall average of two hours a day being wasted, lunch–time not counted, workers over 55 were found to have wasted just 30 minutes. While 33% of the respondents said they wasted time because they didn’t have enough work, 25% said they did so because they were underpaid. However, not all time–wasting activities are detrimental to the organization. Salary.com senior vice–president Bill Coleman felt that personal use of the Internet could even be positive since it could generate new business ideas if not contribute to a happier work environment. “There is such a thing as creative waste. Not all wasted time is bad,†Coleman was quoted by Reuters as saying.
A survey on time–wasting in Indian organizations could throw up interesting results. The most irritating waste of time is when those working inside the office are asked for directions by visitors. With receptionists and security staff also doing duty at the switchboard for telephone calls, it is usually the employee nearest the entrance who has to field queries ranging from “Where is so and so?†to “Where is the toilet?†However, the most formally sanctioned way of wasting time in the Indian organization remains the office–meeting. Organizations are known to hold meetings at the drop of a hat. Even a decision to cut down on meetings would be taken at a meeting! The conference–hall is bigger than the canteen which serves a more useful purpose!
Out of the following four options, which is the odd one out?
A. Men and women waste an equal amount of time.
B. Meetings are one of the most common ways to waste time.
C. Younger workers waste less time.
D. Some time–wasting activities are good for organizations.
The passage does NOT deal with:
A. Efficient time management in organizations
B. US Workers’ Survey
C. Time wasting in Indian organizations
D. Creative waste
The central idea of the passage relates to:
A. common ways of wasting time in Indian organizations
B. time–wasting in organizations
C. why time is wasted in organizations
D. ill–effects of time–wasting activities
From the passage, it may be inferred that
A. More than 5000 respondents admitted to having wasted time at work.
B.The conference hall is a more useful place than the meal canteen.
C. Men waste more time than women at work.
D. On an average, more than two hours of a work day are wasted.
One of the most common time–wasting activities in Indian organizations is:
A. Answering telephone calls
B. Sitting alone in a corner
C. Holding official meetings
D. Surfing the Web
The phrase “creative waste†refers to:
A. Wastage of time that of unproductive
B. Wastage of time that is productive
C. Time wasted during meetings
D. Answering queries of visitors
Directions: In Next five Questions, choose the option that is nearly similar in meaning to the capitalised word. INVALIDATE
A. invariable
B. nullify
C. naught
D. intractable
Directions: In Next five Questions, choose the option that is nearly similar in meaning to the capitalised word. CONSISTENCY
A. Congruity
B. Constancy
C. Compatibility
D. Conformity
Directions: In Next five Questions, choose the option that is nearly similar in meaning to the capitalised word. DYSPEPTIC
A. dynamic
B. Dwarfish
C. Crotchety
D. Crafty
Directions: In Next five Questions, choose the option that is nearly similar in meaning to the capitalised word. MISBEGOTTEN
A. misapprehension
B. misconception
C. purloined
D. delusion
Directions: In Next five Questions, choose the option that is nearly similar in meaning to the capitalised word. STUMPED
A. Bamboozled
B. Subdued
C. Subjugated
D. Terrorized
Directions: In Next five statements only one of the four options is grammatically correct. Identify that correct option.
A. Seating arrangements influenced the kind of interaction that takes place.
B. Seating arrangement’s influence the kind of interaction that takes place.
C. Seating arrangements influence the kind of interactions that take place.
D. Seating arrangements influences the kind of interaction that take place.
Directions: In Next four statements only one of the four options is grammatically correct. Identify that correct option.
A. using too much jargons during communication might obliterate main issue.
B. Using too much jargon during communication might obfuscate the main issue.
C. Using too many jargons during the communication might obdurate a main issue.
D. Using too much jargon’s during communication might obfuscate the main issues.
A. Your advise does not seem to have had any affect.
B. Your advice does not seem to have had any effect.
C. Your advice do not seems to have had any effect.
D. Your advise does not seem to have had any affects.
Directions: In Next four statements only one of the five options is grammatically correct. Identify that correct option.
A. In the course of there journey, they were able to absolve a lot of local cultures.
B. In the coarse of their journey, they were able to absorb a lot of local culture.
C. In the course of their journey, they were able to observe a lot of local culture’s.
D. In the course of their journey, they were able to observe a lot of the local culture.
A. Any organization, large or small, trades with many different people and companies.
B. Any organizations, large or small, trade with many different peoples and companies.
C. ny organization, large or small, trade with many different people and company.
D. Any organization, large or small, trades with many different people and companies.
Directions: Next four Questions consist of groups of jumbled phrases. Only one of the four options, when unscrambled, can be a grammatically correct sentence. Disregarding punctuation errors, identify the correct option.
A. communication skills as among / business students rank / the most important they have to master
B. as my replacement is / I cannot leave my desk / being late to come
C. still the hot issue’s / this is why / celebrity endorsement are
D. Are expected / will attend the summit / MD’s and CEO’s of top companies
A. a heart–on–heart / I decided to have / talk with him
B. duped by a / I was / fly–in–the–night operator
C. throw my / I decided to / hat in the ring
D. came like / the announcement / a bolt from the heavens
A. to the station / I haled a taxi / to take me
B. spend his last few / he preferred to / days in relative anonymity
C. reached to me today / about my appointment / the officious communication
D. get the / pronunciation correct / you can’t never
A. and the environment authority / several type of complaints / by area residents / has been lodged with the plant
B. protagonist’s who defeated / great stories portrays / enemy of / there community
C. how to be / the good manager / and a fox / both a hedgehog
D. own priorities / involves sorting / it always / out your
Directions: Statements of next five questions consist of your phrase each. One of the phrases (A, B, C or D) is grammatically incorrect. Identify that incorrect phrase.
A. To live, to love /
B. to serve, and
C. also admiration are what /
D. I aspire for.
A. In a conflict, speak in a pleasant way, /
B. send appropriate non–verbal messages to the other person /
C. and match yours non–verbal behaviour
D. to the spoken message
A. However, the advantages of teamwork can be minimized /
B. and the benefits increased /
C. if members (particularly those who lead them) /
D. is aware of the methods for improving performance and making decisions.
A. When assertion is used with the win–win approach, /
B. and with others who also uses the win–win approach /
C. each party can consider the needs of the other and /
D. move towards a solution that satisfies as many needs as possible.
A. It is always /
B. been hard to change /
C. the Indian car buyer’s perception /
D. when it comes to designs.
Directions: In Next five Questions choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to each of the underlined words:
Observing his agitation, we tried to propitiate the speaker.
A. provoke
B. placate
C. prohibit
D. facilitate
Muskan’s ubiquitious smile helped to cheer us up in times of misery.
A. small
B. rare
C. common
D. frequent
His description of the event was rather pejorative
A. laudatory
B. derogatory
C. predictive
D. abusive
Evidence of his moral turpitude influenced the committee’s decision about his promotion.
A. courage
B. baseness
C. timidity
D. honorableness
Efforts at managing differences have, till date, been more episodic than otherwise.
A. intermittent
B. eventful
C. continuous
D. half–hearted
If Ms. Q is appointed as the CEO of XYZ corporation then at least one of the following two things will happen (i) the stock price of XYZ corporation will appreciate, (ii) the employee union will not call a strike. Then the following statement may be deduced:
A. If Ms. Q is appointed as the CEO of XYZ corporation AND the stock price of XYZ corporation appreciate, then the employees union will call a strike.
B. If Ms. Q is appointed as the CEO of XYZ corporation AND the employees union calls a strike, then the stock price of XYZ corporation will appreciate.
C. If MS. Q is appointed as the CEO of XYZ corporation AND the stock price of XYZ corporation does not appreciate, then the employees union will call a strike.
D. If Ms. Q is appointed as the CEO of XYZ corporation AND the employees union does not call a strike, then the stock price of XYZ corporation will not appreciate.
Consider the following three pieces of information:
I. Geeta and Sita are of same age. II. Total age of Geeta, Reena and Sita is 88 years. III. Reena’s age is same as the age of Geeta and Sita’s age.
Which of the above pieces of information enables you to answer the question. “What is the age of Reena?â€
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II and III are not sufficient
In a code, South – East becomes West, North – East becomes South and so on. What will West become?
A. South–East
B. North–East
C. East
D. North
In a coding language, the letters of the English alphabet are arranged in such a manner that all the vowels are put in the end and the remaining letters are arranged from the first letter onwards. The rearranged alphabets are used to denote the position occupted by letters in the original alphabets. What is the code of “META�
A. LWPV
B. QGYB
C. PWLV
D. TEAM
In a supply chain, P is a critical supplier in the sense that if P defaults the entire supply chain breaks down, and if the supply chain breaks down production stops. If the supply chain has broken down it may be deduced that
A. P has defaulted and production has stopped.
B. P has defaulted and production might have stopped.
C. P might have defaulted and production has stopped.
D. P might have defaulted and production might have stopped.
Each question consists of a set of numbered Statements. Assume that each one of these Statements is individually true. Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these Statements. Choose that subset as your answer where the Statements therein are logically inconsistent among themselves.
Example: Given the six Statements: (i) All bats are rodents. (ii) All rodents are rats. (iii) All bats are rats. (iv) X is a bat. (v) X is a rodent. (vi) X is not a rat; and the four choices: (A) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (v) & (vi) (C) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi) (D) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) The correct answer is C.
(i) All mammals have hairs. (ii) Anything which does not have feathers cannot fly. (iii) Anything which has feathers is not a mammal. (iv) Anything which can fly does not have hair. (v) Anything which cannot fly is a mammal. (vi) Anything which has hair does not have feathers. (vii) X is a mammal. (viii) X can fly.
A. (ii), (iv), (vi), (vii) & (viii)
B. (ii), (v), (vi), (vii) & (viii)
C. (iii), (iv), (vi), (vii) & (viii)
D. (i), (ii), (vi), (vii) & (viii)
(i) If the monsoon comes in time it rains aplenty in the peninsula. (ii) If it rains aplenty in the peninsula there is no crop failure. (iii) If the fertilizers are not available in the market then there is a crop failure. (iv) If the fertilizers are available in the market that means the shipping line is working smoothly. (v) If there is no crop failure that means fertilizers are not available in the market. (vi) If the shipping line is working smoothly the monsoon does not come in time. (vii) If the fertilizers are not available in the market then it rains aplenty in the peninsula.
A. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (vi)
B. (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) & (vii)
C. (i), (iii), (iv), (vi) & (vii)
D. (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii)
(i) Ram always drinks orange juice while watching cricket. (ii) If Ram is with his friends he is not at home. (iii) Ram does not drink orange juice on weekdays. (iv) During weekends, Ram is always with his friends. (v) Ram drinks orange juice only at home. (vi) Ram watches cricket only at home. (vii) Ram is watching cricket.
A. (i), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii)
B. (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii)
C. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) & (vii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) & (vii)
Each of these problems has two Statements I and II and a Question. Use the information provided in Statements I and II to decide whether they are sufficient to answer the Question. For each problem, select one of one options (A), (B), (C) or (D) based on the following criteria:
A spherical iron ball is dropped into a cylindrical tumbler containing such an amount of water that the ball gets completely immersed but water does not overflow out of the tumbler. By how many centimetres does the water level rise in the tumbler? I. The radius of the ball is half that of the tumbler. II. The tumbler contained 100 cc of water.
A. Choose option A, if the question can be answered using the information given in just one of the Statements but not the other i.e. choose this option if one of the following conditions is met: • Statement I is sufficient to answer the question but
B. Choose option B if the Question can be answered using the information given in either one of them i.e. choose this option if Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the Question AND Statement II alone is also sufficient to answer the Question.
C. Choose option C if the Question can be answered using the information given in both Statements I and II together, but cannot be answered individually from I and II.
D. Choose option D if the Question cannot be answered even after using the information given in both Statements I and II.
What is the exact time? I. The time is between 3 PM and 4 PM. II. The hour hand and the minute hand are in a straight line.
X and Y start walking towards each other in a straight line at 9:00 AM. What is the ratio of the distance travelled by X to Y from their respective starting points to the point where they meet each other? I. X walks twice as fast as Y. II. The distance between the starting points of X and Y are 5 km.
What is the remainder when 3m + 1 is divided by 6? I. m is even II. m is odd
D. Choose option D if the Question cannot be answered even after using the information given in both Statements I and II
Will Q take more than 8 hours to complete job X alone? I. P works faster than Q. II. P and Q can together finish the job in 5 hours.
A. Choose option A, if the question can be answered using the information given in just one of the Statements but not the other i.e. choose this option if one of the following conditions is met: • Statement I is sufficient to answer the question bu
In a written test, Sita, Geeta, Reena, and Asha have got their ranks. Who are the first and the last rank holders? I. Sita has scored more than Asha but less than Geeta. II. Asha has scored more than Reena but less than Geeta and Sita.
Each of these problems has two Statements I and II and a Question. Use the information provided in Statements I and II to decide whether they are sufficient to answer the Question. For each problem, select one of one options (A), (B), (C) or (D) based on the following criteria: The monthly salary of a Boss is Rs. 40,000. What is the salary of his only subordinate? I. The subordinate gets Rs. 10,000 less than the average salary of the Boss and his own salary. II. The average salary of the Boss and the subordinate is Rs. 37,000.
Read each of the short passages and select the right option for the question relating to each passage:
It is unfortunate for the country, specially for the poor and women, that whenever any kind of disincentive – even of the mildest nature such as debarring a person with more than two children from contesting any local body election – is introduced to promote family planning, there are always some activists and organizations who unnecessarily oppose the measures without realizing that the voluntary family planning programmes are a miserable flop as clearly highlighted by the national family health surveys.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s contention?
A. Percentage of rural women voluntarily seeking family planning services in government health centre facilities has drastically come down over the last decade.
B. One child policy in China, where employees with more than one child are discriminated against, has been very effective in controlling their population.
C. Activists and organizations which seem to advocate civil rights issues typically have their own vested interests and hidden agendas.
D. Punitive measures are the best deterrents for refraining people from committing deeds which adversely affect the society at large.
Along with the increasing use of Electronic Refrigerators, the demand for ice in the market declined, Formerly, we were buying ice to keep our ice boxes cool and the food stored in the ice box fresh. Now the ice boxes cool themselves. Similarly, the introduction of web–based e–Learning teaching, to be offered simultaneously in different cities, will…
Which of the following best completes the argument left incomplete?
A. Increase the course enrolment.
B. Increase the spread of the course.
C. Reduce the need for class room.
D. Reduce the ineffectiveness in teaching.
Prosperity will eventually drive out divisive politics. In a prosperous society, there would neither be time nor need for divisive politics. The underlying driver of all forms of divisions is economic. Therefore economic policies favoring rising prosperity would do less harm to society than the “redistribution of poverty†policies. In drawing the above conclusion the author assumes that: I. Divisive policy is harmful to the society. II. “Redistribution of poverty†policies lead to divisive politics
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
In a recent study published in The Journal of Family Practice, no significant benefit over a placebo was found from using the antibiotic Amoxicillin among 135 patients with typical indications of a sinus infection. All the patients complained of sinusitis, with pus in the nasal cavity, facial pressure or nasal discharge lasting longer than seven days. A small subgroup of patients receiving the antibiotic became better faster than the others. But the researchers were unable to discern anything about those patients prior to administering Amoxicillin that indicated a bacterial infection, as opposed to a viral one.
From the above passage it may be inferred that:
A. Use of an antibiotic is beneficial for sinusitis patients.
B. Antibiotics should be administered to only those sinusitis patients, who have been diagnosed to have a bacterial infection.
C. Antibiotics do not have any effect on sinusitis patients.
D. Use of an antibiotic may be beneficial for a small percentage of sinusitis patients with bacterial infection, but in general antibiotics are useless for sinusitis patients
In spite of the economics of direct entry system of recruitment being appreciated and accepted by the merchant navy, our armed forces still seem to be dragging their feet on this issue. If anything, our defence organization appears to be continually augmenting its training establishments by having in its fold professional institutions providing basic university education. There is no dearth of such institutions in our civil education system. This results in unnecessary duplication at the expense of the defence budget.
From the above paragraph it may be inferred that:
A. Merchant navy used to admit only college graduates in its training programmes.
B. Merchant navy no longer provides basic university education in its training programmes.
C. The nature of the work involved in defense organization and merchant navy are similar.
D. A major part of the defense budget is spent on its training establishments.
It defies common logic and theory that too little sleep can make one fat. If such findings are made public, I’m afraid lazy people will grab the opportunity to sleep more. But I’m sure this is not the only factor responsible for being overweight. There should be more research on the issue before scientists conclude something so dramatic.
A. Most of the sleep–deprived people participating in the study which concluded that “too little sleep can make one fat†had on overweight sister.
B. Most lazy people are far.
C. Most of the people, participating in the study which concluded that “too little sleep can make one fatâ€, who got proper sleep also exercised regularly.
D. Most of the sleep–deprived people, participating in the study which concluded that “too little sleep can make one fatâ€, love pizzas.
The smallest of fluctuations in the BSE Sensex sees the doomsayers coming out of the woodwork. One of the popular but misguided insights is: since the market is tanking, run with your money before you are done in. I find this amusing. The same people, when they spot a “sale†sign in shopping malls or read about a fall in air–ticket prices to Sydney or Singapore, try and grab the deal. But when it comes to investing, they live a contradiction. Any fall in the market is a reason to buy. If you are an investor in equities or equity funds, you are there for the long term. Thus, if you were considering equities at Sensex 7500, you should be celebrating at Sensex 6500. The same companies are now cheaper by 13%! If they fall further, so much the better–doomsayers be damned!
A. Most people sell their equity holdings in a falling market.
B. Equity markets are similar in nature to the commodity markets like a supermarket or airline tickets.
C. One should buy equities when the prices are low.
D. Though markets might drop in the short–run, in the long–term they are bound to rise again.
Each question consists of a set of numbered Statements. Among them there is only one Statement which logically follows from the rest. Choose this “conclusion†Statement from the given options. Example: With the four statements; (i) None of the paper setters can do logic. (ii) Insane people are not fit to serve in a jury. (iii) None of the paper setters are fit to be in a jury (iv) Anyone who is sane can do logic; the correct answer is (iii), which is a logical consequence of the rest. (i) No soup, that is cold, has Croutons in it. (ii) The soup in the cup is hot. (iii) No soup that does not have Croutons in it is fit for drinking. (iv) The soup in the cup is fit for drinking.
A. (i)
B. (ii)
C. (iii)
D. (iv)
Each question consists of a set of numbered Statements. Among them there is only one Statement which logically follows from the rest. Choose this “conclusion†Statement from the given options. Example: With the four statements; (i) None of the paper setters can do logic. (ii) Insane people are not fit to serve in a jury. (iii) None of the paper setters are fit to be in a jury (iv) Anyone who is sane can do logic; the correct answer is (iii), which is a logical consequence of the rest. (i) Rainy days are always cloudy. (ii) Everyday caries an umbrella when it is raining. (iii) When people carry umbrellas the day never turns out fine. (iv) The only days when I have a fight with my life are cloudy days. (v) I call no day unlucky when I do not have a fight with my life. (vi) My lucky days always turn out fine.
B. (iii)
C. (iv)
D. (vi)
Each question consists of a set of numbered Statements. Among them there is only one Statement which logically follows from the rest. Choose this “conclusion†Statement from the given options. Example: With the four statements; (i) None of the paper setters can do logic. (ii) Insane people are not fit to serve in a jury. (iii) None of the paper setters are fit to be in a jury (iv) Anyone who is sane can do logic; the correct answer is (iii), which is a logical consequence of the rest. (i) All the papers presented in the conference that fail to get a prize, are rejected for journal publication. (ii) All the papers, which are rejected for journal publication, are to appear in the proceedings. (iii) None of the papers, appearing in the proceedings, has any real data set. (iv) All the papers without any real data set have an extensive simulation study. (v) My paper has an extensive simulation study. (vi) My paper did not get a prize in the conference.
A. (iii)
B. (iv)
C. (v)
Next five Questions are based on the following paragraph:
A Business School with six Professors L, M, N, O, P, and Q has decided to implement a new scheme of course management. Each Professor has to coordinate one course and support another course. This semester, O’s support course is Finance, while three others have it in coordinator’s role. P and Q have marketing as one of their subjects. Q coordinates Operations, which is a support course for both N and P. Finance and IT are L’s subjects. Both L and O have same subjects. Strategy is a support course for only one of the Professors.
Who coordinates the Strategy course?
A. M
B. N
C. O
D. None of the 6
Which course is supported by M?
A. Finance
B. Strategy
C. IT
D. Operations
Who coordinates the IT course?
A. L
Who all are coordinating the Finance course?
A. L, M and N
B. M, N and O
C. N and O
D. L and N
Which course has only one coordinator and only one support Professor?
A. Marketing
B. Operations
C. Finance
D. Strategy
Directions for Next five Questions: Each of these questions has a set of numbered sentences. Each answer option specifies a sequence in which these sentences should appear so that a coherent meaning emerges. Choose that sequence as your answer, which logically yields the most coherent meaning.
(i) In most industries people cost are much higher than the capital costs. (ii) It is no secret that business success today revolves largely around people, not capital. (iii) Even when a company is not people–intensive overall, a people–based business embedded in the company often drives corporate performance. (iv) Many traditional manufacturers are now essentially service businesses
A. (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
B. (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)
C. (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii)
D. (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
(i) A company’s market share, revenue and balance sheet are all key elements. (ii) Share prices move up and down according to a bewildering array of factors, only some of which are readily quantifiable or even conventionally discernible by the CPAs and the clients they represent. (iii) Financial markets are neither rational nor efficient, and any investment strategy that ignores this fact is doomed to failure. (iv) But at least equally important are the vagaries of human psychology and behaviour, the conscious and unconscious wishes, conflicts, fears and fantasies that lure people en masse into bad – sometimes catastrophic – decisions.
A. (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
B. (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
C. (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (iv)
D. (iii) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
(i) I have always found that a systematically planned vacation turns out to be more enjoyable. (ii) I decide on a list of possible destinations by carefully browsing the ITDC web–site. (iii) Availability of decent accommodation and not being a popular tourist attraction are the two most important criteria for choosing the venue for any of my vacations. (iv) Then I cross–check against the availability of good hotels near these destinations.
A. (iii) – (ii) – (iv) – (i)
B. (i) – (iv) – (ii) – (iii)
C. (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
D. (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv)
(i) It is this goodwill that really makes sponsorship different from advertising. (ii) For example, sponsorship operates through different cognitive processes than advertising. (iii) In turn, goodwill feeling comes to the company which influences attitude and behavior toward the brand. (iv) There are several benefits of sponsorship over mass advertising. (v) While advertising changes a consumer’s perception of a specific product, sponsorship changes the perception of a specific sponsor which will rub off on the brand. (vi) It engages the consumer by bestowing benefit on an activity which the consumer has an intense emotional response to.
A. (iv) – (ii) – (vi) – (iii) – (i) – (v)
B. (iv) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iii)
C. (v) – (iv) – (ii) – (vi) – (i) – (iii)
D. (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iii) – (iv)
Next five Questions are based on the following passage:
Four students, Promila, Quadir, Rita and Sridhar, each working under the supervision of one of the four Professors Anand, Bose, Chandrashekharan and Deshpande made their final year MBA Project Presentations one by one, one each in the areas of Finance, Marketing, Systems and Human Resource Management (HRM). Each Professor is an expert in only one of the above areas and supervised exactly one of the above students in his own area. The following clues are provided:
(i) First presentation was made by Rita. (ii) Prof. Bose works in Finance. (iii) Prof. Deshpande was Promila’s supervisor. (iv) The last presentation was in the Systems area. (v) Sridhar’s project was in the HRM area. (vi) Prof. Bose’s student’s presentation followed that of Prof. Chandrashekharan’s student
In which area was Rita’s project?
B. Finance
C. Systems
D. Cannot be determined
What is Prof. Deshpande’s area of expertise?
B. HRM
D. Can not be uniquely determined
In which area was the second presentation?
B. Marketing
C. HRM
D. Cannot be uniquely determined
Which student’s project did Prof. Bose supervise?
A. Quadir
B. Rita
C. Sridhar
D. Can’t be determined from above.
What is Prof. Anand’s area of expertise? I. HRM II. Systems III. Marketing
A. Either I or II
B. Either I or III
C. Either II or III
D. Neither I, nor II, nor III
Let [x] represent the greatest integer . Define by . At any integral value of x, the function f(x) is:
A. Continuous
B. Discontinuous but has a unique limit
C. Does not have a limit
D. Has only left hand limit
Two vessels A and B of equal capacities contain mixtures of milk and water in the ratios 4: 1 and 3:1, respectively. 25% of the mixture from A is taken out and added to B. After mixing it thoroughly, an equal amount is taken out from B and added back to A. The ratio of milk to water in vessel A after the second operation is:
A. 79 : 21
B. 83 : 1
C. 77 : 23
D. 81 : 19
An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle such that its vertices lie on the circumference of the circle. A point is selected at random from within the circle. The probability of finding the point inside the triangle is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two circles C1 and C2 having the same radius of 2 cm and the centres at P & Q respectively intersect each other such that the line of centre PQ intersects C1 and C2 at F and E respectively. EF = 1 cm. The whole assembly is enclosed in a rectangle of minimum area. The perimeter of rectangle is:
A. 20 units
B. 22 units
C. 24 units
D. 26 units
If each permutation of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is listed in increasing order of magnitude, the 289th term will be:
A. 326541
B. 341256
C. 356241
D. 314256
The position vector of the mirror image of the point represented by the position vector across the plane mirror x + y = 0 is:
For let then the value of will be:
A. 1
B. i
D. 0
C. -1
Define then the value of is
Directions: Next two Questions are based on the following information:
A 300 room motel can rent all its rooms at Rs. 150 per room per day. For every one rupee increase in tariff, the occupancy falls by 2 rooms. Normal maintenance, independent of occupancy is Rs. 120 per room per day. Occupancy entails additional costs of Rs. 16 per room per day on the units occupied. The optimal tariff (in Rupees) to maximize annual profits is:
A. 150
B. 162
C. 158
D. 160
A 300 room motel can rent all its rooms at Rs. 150 per room per day. For every one rupee increase in tariff, the occupancy falls by 2 rooms. Normal maintenance, independent of occupancy is Rs. 120 per room per day. Occupancy entails additional costs of Rs. 16 per room per day on the units occupied. Now, suppose that rooms of the motel can be permanently shut down in blocks of 5, if desired, resulting in saving of normal maintenance of Rs. 120 per room per day. The optimal tariff (in Rupees) to maximize annual profits in this case would be:
A. 158
B. 160
C. 162
D. 156
The relationship between the price of gasoline y (in Rupees) and its weekly supply, x (in hundreds of gallons) is . If the weekly supply decreases at a rate of 50 gallons per week when the supply is 600 gallons, the price of gasoline will be changing at the rate of:
A line makes equal intercepts of length ‘a’ on the coordinate axes, intersecting the X axis and Y axis at A and B respectively. A circle is circumscribed about the triangle OAB, where O is the origin of the coordinate system. A tangent is drawn to this circle at the point O. The sum of the perpendicular distances of the vertices A, B and O from this tangent is:
A. 2a
Point P has co–ordinates (3, 2) with reference to a rectangular frame in two dimensional space. This coordinate frame is rotated in the clockwise direction through an angle of ( radians). The coordinates of P with reference to the rotated frame are:
A complex number z lies on the curve |z + 6| = 3. The largest magnitude of |z + 3| will
A. 6
B. 3
C. 36
D. 12
B. -1
C. -i
D. i
A. 7e
B. 7
C. 2e
D. 2
If lies on the circle whose equation is then the argument of is:
A. 0
Set A consists of n elements. A subset is constituted. Elements of are replaced in A and a second subset is constituted. This process is repeated to form m subsets of A. The number of ways in which we can form such that are:
Let (x) and [x] represent the fractional and integral components of . We define . The range of is:
A. (-1,1)
B. {0}
C. [1,1]
If A, B and C are the angles of a triangle and and are in Arithmetic Progression, then the triangle is:
A. Right angled but not isosceles
B. Isosceles but not right angled
C. Equilateral
D. Right angled isosceles
is equal to:
MTNL has a waiting list of 5005 applicants for its recently launched mobile phone scheme. The list shows that there are at least 5 males between any two females. The largest possible number of females in the waiting list is:
A. 920
B. 835
C. 721
D. 1005
Operator A has the matrix representation A = in conventional basis. Its representation in the basis of its eigenvectors (eigen basis) is:
Measures of both risk and return are additive. i.e. where are the proportions of the money invested in the securities A & B in the portfolio P. The investor has a maximum risk tolerance of 4.00. The return that he can earn (in percent) is:
A. 9
B. 12
C, 10
D. 16
A man 6 feet tall standing 50 feet away from the base of a tower observes that the angle subtended by the tower at his eye level is . A flagstaff at top the tower subtends an angle of at the same point. The height (in feet) of the flagstaff is closest to:
A. 18
B. 20
C. 25
D. 22
A polynomial f(x) with real coefficients satisfies the functional equation f(x). . If f(2) = 9, then f(4) i
A. 82
B. 17
C. 65
D. None of the above
If you have 3 tickets to a lottery for which 10 tickets were sold and 5 prizes are to be given, the probability that you will win at least one prize is:
A. 7/12
B. 9/12
C. 1/12
D. 11/12
Statistics show that 20% of smokers get lung cancer and 80% of lung cancer patients are smokers. If 30% of the population smokes, then the percentage of population having lung cancer is:
A. 4
C. 8
D. 7.5
If then the order of a, b, c, d from largest to smallest is:
A. d, a, c, b
B. c, d, b, a
C. c, d, a, b
D. d, c, a, b
The adjacent sides AB, BC of a square ABCD of side ‘a’ units are tangent to a circle. The vertex D of the square lies on the circumference of the circle. The radius of the circle could be:
We define by Then the function f(f(f(x))) is discontinuous at:
A. 0 and -1
B. -1 and 1
A mixture comprises two chemicals A and B. The price of A is Rs. 100/– per litre and that of B is Rs. 200/ per litre. We can spend a maximum of Rs. 600/– for making the mixture. The densities of A and B are 10 kgs/litre and 12 kgs / litre respectively. The mixture must contain each of the chemicals to the extent of at least 25% by weight. The maximum weight of the mixture that can be made is closest to:
A. 60 kg
B. 51 kg
C. 54 kg
D. 48 kg
Semicircle is drawn with a line segment PQ as its diameter with centre at R. Semicircles are drawn with PR & QR as diameters respectively, both lying inside . A full circle is drawn in such a way that it is tangent to all the three semicircles lies inside and outside . The radius of is:
A, B and C are assigned a piece of work which they can complete by working together in 15 days. Their efficiencies (measured in terms of rate of doing work) are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. After 1/3 of the work is completed, one of them has to be withdrawn due to budget constraint. Their wages per day are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 6. The number of days in which the remaining two persons can complete the work (at optimal cost) is:
C. 15
We define the modulus of a m × n matrix by The angle, will have the maximum possible modulus is:
If then y is equal to:
A. 81
B.2187
C. 729
D. 59049
A toy consists of a base that is the section of a sphere and a conical top. The volume of the conical top is units and its height is 10 units. The total height of the toy is 19 units. The volume of the sphere (in cubic units) from which the base has been extracted is:
An employee joined a company on 1.4.2004 in the salary grade of Rs. 8000 – 500 – 9500 – 750 -12500 with a basic salary of 9000. He is due to retire on 31.3.2007. He contributes 10% of his basic salary to an EPF scheme. His employer contributes an equal amount. If, on retirement, he gets full amount of his share of EPF and 50% of the employer’s share, the amount of EPF received by him, ignoring any interest earned on the deposits, will be:
A. 34500
B. 17250
C. 43500
D. 51750
Hydro power is the major source of energy in
A. Northern and Southern Regions
B. Eastern and Western Regions
C. Southern and North Eastern Region
Which region has the highest installed capacity by the Central sector as compared to the State sector?
A. Northern Region
B. Southern Region
C. Eastern Region
D. North Eastern Region
What is the percentage of Nuclear Power in total installed capacity in the country?
A. 2.74
B. 2.81
C. 2.51
D. 2.63
In any sector, across the regions, the highest contribution from any one of the three sources to the total installed capacity is
A. 79%
B. 78%
C. 89%
D. 98%
Following questions are based on the following charts:
Trend of stock and index futures contracts diverged in the month of (I) March to April (II) April to May (III) May to June
D. I, II and III
Difference in the growth or decline rates between number and turnover of futures contract in any given month is the highest for
(I) Stock futures (II) Index Futures
C. I and II
D. Insufficient Data
The highest monthly percentage growth or decline occurred in the case of
A. Number of Stock Futures Contracts
B. Number of Index Futures Contracts
C. Turnover of Stock Futures Contracts
D. Turnover of Index Futures Contracts
Value of a contract is defined as the ratio of turnover to number of contracts. The value of the contract was highest for both stock and index futures occurred in
A. January
B. February and March
C. Only March
The highest growth rate between January and June occurred in the case of
A. Number of Stock Future contracts
B. Number of Index Futures contracts
C. Turnover of Stock Futures contracts
D. Turnover of Index Futures contracts
Consistent growth pattern is observed for
A. Number of Stock Futures contracts
C. Both Stock and Index future contracts
Which of the following is true?
A. Number and Turnover of Stock futures follow a similar pattern
B. Number and Turnover of Index futures follow a similar pattern
C. Number of Stock futures and Turnover of Index futures follow a similar pattern
D. Number of Index futures and Turnover of Stock Futures follow a similar pattern
When you are sure that you have answered as many questions as possible, click the ‘Done’ button below and view your results.